UPSC Prelims 2018 GS Paper 1 with Answer Key
. UPSC
Prelims 2018 GS Paper 1 with Answer Key:
1. With
reference to the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), consider
the following statements :
1. IRNSS
has three satellites in geostationary and four satellites in geosynchronous
orbits.
2. IRNSS covers entire India and about 5500 sq. km beyond its borders.
3. India will have its own satellite navigation system with full global
coverage by the middle of 2019.
Which of
the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1
only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) None
Answer. a
Explanation: The IRNSS
is being developed parallel to the GAGAN (GPS Aided GEO Augmented Satellite
Navigation) program, the ISRO SBAS (Satellite Based Augmentation System)
version of an overlay system for GNSS signal corrections.
The IRNSS system consists of a constellation of seven satellites
and a supporting ground segment. Three of the satellites in the constellation
will be placed in a geostationary orbit and the remaining four in a
geosynchronous inclined orbit of 29º relative to the equatorial plane. Such an
arrangement would mean all seven satellites would have continuous radio
visibility with Indian control stations. It will cover the entire country and
an area extending about 1,500 sq. km beyond its border, with a position
accuracy better than 20m in all weather conditions.
2.
Consider the following phenomena :
1. Light
is affected by gravity.
2. The Universe is constantly expanding.
3. Matter warps its surrounding space-time.
Which of
the above is/are the prediction/predictions of Albert Einstein's General Theory
of Relativity, often discussed in media ?
(a) 1 and
2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer. c
Explanation:
General relativity’s light-bending effect proved valuable for much
more than affirming Einstein’s theory. By bending light, masses act like a
lens; such “gravitational lensing” alters the apparent position of a distant
object, creating multiple images of it, or (if the images overlap) appearing to
brighten it.
Einstein succeeded in showing that matter and spacetime mutually
interact to mimic Newton’s naïve idea that masses attract each other. Gravity,
said Einstein, actually moved matter along the curving pathways embodied in
spacetime — paths imprinted by mass and energy themselves.
3. With
reference to the Genetically Modified mustard (GM mustard) developed in India,
consider the following statements :
1. GM
mustard has the genes of a soil bacterium that give the plant the property of
pest-resistance to a wide variety of pests.
2. GM mustard has the genes that allow the plant cross-pollination and
hybridization.
3. GM mustard has been developed jointly by the IARI and Punjab Agricultural
University.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a)1 and 3 only
(b)2 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
Answer. b
Explanation: GM
mustard has been developed by a team of scientists at Delhi University’s Centre
for Genetic Manipulation of Crop Plants led by former vice-chancellor Deepak
Pental under a government-funded project.
4.
Consider the following pairs :
Terms
sometimes seen in
news
Context /Topic
1. Belle
II
experiment
- Artificial Intelligence
2. Blockchain
technology
- Digital/Cryptocurrency
3. CRISPR —
Cas9
- Particle Physics
Which of
the pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?
(a) 1 and
3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer. b
Explanation: The
blockchain is an undeniably ingenious invention which created the backbone of a
new type of internet originally devised for the digital currency, Bitcoin.
5. Which
of the following statements best describes "carbon fertilization"?
(a)
Increased plant growth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the
atmosphere
(b) Increased temperature of Earth due to increased concentration of carbon
dioxide in the atmosphere
(c) Increased acidity of oceans as a result of increased concentration of
carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
(d) Adaptation of all living beings on Earth to the climate change brought
about hr the increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
Answer. a
Explanation: Carbon
fertilization results in larger amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere that
has resulted from rising anthropogenic emissions should help the growth of
plants, which use carbon dioxide during photosynthesis. The effect ought to
increase crop yields – and that is some good news for farmers, amid the
overwhelmingly gloomy forecasts for other aspects of climate change.
6. When
the alarm of your smartphone rings in the morning, you wake up and tap it to
stop the alarm which causes your geyser to be switched on automatically. The
smart mirror in your bathroom shows the day's weather and also indicates the
level of water in your overhead tank. After you take some groceries from your
refrigerator for making breakfast, it recognises the shortage of stock in it
and places an order for the supply of fresh grocery items. When you step out of
your house and lock the door, all lights, fans, geysers and AC machines get
switched off automatically. On your way to office, your car warns you about
traffic congestion ahead and suggests an alternative route, and if you are late
for a meeting, it sends a- message to your office accordingly.
In the
context of emerging communication technologies, which one of the following
term" best applies to the above scenario?
(a)
Border Gateway Protocol
(b) Internet of Things
(c) Internet Protocol
(d) Virtual Private Network
Answer.b
Explanation:
Internet of things is a seamless connected network system of embedded objects/
devices, with identifiers, in which communication without any human
intervention is possible using standard and interoperable communication
protocols.With this technology, each and every device that we use in daily life
(including refrigerators, cars and even tooth brush) can be made intelligent
and smart by using device specific operating systems and connectivity to the
Internet.
7. With
reference to solar power production in India, consider the following
statements:
1. India
is the third largest in the world in the manufacture of silicon wafers used in
photovoltaic units.
2. The solar power tariffs are determined by the Solar Energy Corporation of
India.
Which of
the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1
only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer.d
Explanation: Solar
energy corporation of india's works include Solar Thermal installations for
water/air heating and industrial process, Solar Thermal Pilot Power Plants,
Implementation of Grid Connected Solar Roof-Top scheme, Development and
dissemination of low cost solar lanterns, Grid connected solar power plants,
Solar Mini/Micro Grids, Research and Development including solar resource
assessment.
8. The
staple commodities of export by the English East India Company from Bengal in the
middle of the 18th century were
(a) Raw
cotton, oil-seeds and opium
(b) Sugar, salt, zinc and lead
(c) Copper, silver, gold, spices and tea
(d) Cotton, silk, saltpetre and opium
Answer.d
Explanation: During
the period 1780–1860 India changed from an exporter of processed goods paid for
in bullion to an exporter of raw materials and a buyer of manufactured goods.
In the 1750s fine cotton and silk was exported from India to markets in Europe,
Asia, and Africa, while by the second quarter of the 19th century, raw
materials, which chiefly consisted of raw cotton, opium, and indigo, accounted
for most of India's exports.
9. Which
one of the following is a very significant aspect of the Champaran Satyagraha?
(a)
Active all-India participation of lawyers, students and women in the National
Movement
(b) Active involvement of Dalit and Tribal communities of India in the National
Movement
(c) Joining of peasant unrest to India's National Movement
(d) Drastic decrease in the cultivation of plantation crops and commercial
crops
Answer.c
Explanation: The
Champaran peasant movement was launched in 1917-18. Its objective was to create
awakening among the peasants against the European planters. These planters
resorted to illegal and inhuman methods of indigo cultivation at a cost which
by no canons of justice could be called an adequate remuneration for the labour
done by the peasants.
10. Who
among the following were the founders of the "Hind Mazdoor Sabha"
established in 1948 ?
(a) B.
Krishna Pillai, E.M.S. Namboodiripad and K.C. George
(b) Jayaprakash Narayan, Deen Day al Upadhyay and M.N. Roy
(c) C.P. Ramaswamy Iyer, K. Kamaraj and Veeresalingam Pantulu
(d) Ashok Mehta, T.S. Ramanujam and G.G. Mehta
Answer.d
Explanation
: The Hind Mazdoor sabha was founded in Howrah in west bengal
on 29 December 1948, by socialists, Forward Bloc followers and independent
unionists. It was founded by Basawon Singh, Ashok Mehta, R.S. Ruikar, Maniben
Kara, Shibnath Banerjee, R.A. Khedgikar, T.S. Ramanujam, V.S. Mathur, G.G.
Mehta. R.S. Ruikar was elected president and Ashok Mehta general secretary. HMS
absorbed the Royist Indian Federation of Labour and the Hind Mazdoor Panchayat,
which was formed in 1948 by socialists leaving the increasingly communist
dominated AITUC.
11. With
reference to the religious practices in India, the "Sthanakvasi" sect
belongs to
(a)
Buddhism
(b) Jainism
(c) Vaishnavism
(d) Shaivism
Answer.b
Explanation
: Sthanakvasi is a sect of svetambara Jainism founded by a merchant
named Lavaji in 1653 AD. It believes that idol worship is not essential in the
path of soul purification and attainment of Nirvana/Moksha. The sect is
essentially a reformation of the one founded on teachings of Lonka, a
fifteenth-century Jain reformer. Sthānakavāsins accept thirty-two of the Jain
Agamas, the Śvētāmbara canon. Śvētāmbarins who are not Sthānakavāsins are
mostly part of the Murtipujaka sect.
12. With
reference to the cultural history of India, consider the following statements :
1. White
marble was used in making Buland Darwaza and Khankah at Fatehpur Sikri.
2. Red sandstone and marble were used in making Bara Imambara and Rumi Darwaza
at Lucknow.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1
only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer.a
Explanation:
The
Buland Darwaza at Fatehpur Sikri is “the most iconic architectural
accomplishment of Akbar’s reign. It incorporates almost all the essential
features of Akbar’s architectural traditions: red sandstone, stone carvings,
relief by inserting white marble, etc.” The construction of the Buland Darwaza
was inspired by Timurid architecture. Along with Humayun’s Tomb, its
monumentality reflects its Central Asian origins.
Asaf-ud-Daula’s rule saw a devastating famine, which created an
economic crisis. The residents of Awadh were self-respecting people, so instead
of handing out dole, the Nawab started a food-for-work programme. The famous
Asafi Imambara, or Bara Imambara, of Lucknow was built to give employment and
revenue to the public.
Instead of stones and marble, brick and lime were used. Stucco
ornamentation (gajkari) was used to decorate the monuments, giving it a deep
relief effect even on flat walls. Mother of pearl and shells deposited in lake
beds were used in the stucco ornamentation to give a shine finer than marble.
The local masons cleverly used the brick, with its small size and thickness, to
form remarkably fine details on the wall and column surfaces.
13. Which
one of the following foreign travellers elaborately discussed about diamonds
and diamond mines of India?
(a)
Francois Bernier
(b) Jean-Baptiste Tavernier
(c) Jean de Thevenot
(d) Abbe Barthelemy Carre
Answer.b
Explanation: Jean-Baptiste
Tavernier (1605 – 1689) was a 17th-century French gem merchant and traveler.
Tavernier, a private individual and merchant traveling at his own expense,
covered, by his own account, 60,000 leagues (120,000 miles) in making six
voyages to Persia and India between the years 1630 and 1668.
Tavernier was born in Paris of a French or Flemish Huguenot family
that had emigrated to Antwerp, to escape persecution, and which subsequently
returned to Paris after the publication of the Edict of Nantes, which promised
protection for French Protestants. Both his father Gabriel and his uncle
Melchior were cartographers.
In a book written by Ball, Valentine (tr. from the 1676 French
Ed.) (1899). Travels in India by Jean Baptiste Tavernier, he clearly states that
Tavernier identified the diamond mining sites in India very clearly.
14. With
reference to Indian history, who among the following is a future Buddha, yet to
come to save the world?
(a)
Avalokiteshvara
(b) Lokesvara
(c) Maitreya
(d) Padmapani
Answer.c
Explanation: According
to Buddhist tradition, Maitreya is a bodhisattva who will appear on Earth in
the future, achieve complete enlightenment, and teach the pure dharma.
According to scriptures, Maitreya will be a successor to the present Buddha,
Gautama Buddha (also known as Śākyamuni Buddha).
15. Which
one of the following statements does not apply to the system of Subsidiary
Alliance introduced by Lord Wellesley?
(a) To
maintain a large standing army at other's expense
(b) To keep India safe from Napoleonic danger
(c) To secure a fixed income for the Company
(d) To establish British paramountcy over the Indian States
Answer.b
Explanation: The
Subsidiary Alliance System was “Non-Intervention Policy” used by Lord Wellesley
who was the Governor-General (1798-1805) to establish British Empire in India.
According to this system, every ruler in India had to accept to pay a subsidy
to the British for the maintenance of British army. In return, British would
protect them from their enemies which gave British enormous expansion.
Subsidiary Alliance introduced by Lord Wellesley was nothing to do with
Napoleon danger. Hence option b does not apply.
For more information: Key Points on Subsidiary Alliance
16.
Consider the following statements :
1. In the
first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra
Party.
2. In the Lok Sabha, a "Leader of the Opposition" was recognised for
the first time in 1969.
3. In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its
leader cannot be recognised as the Leader of the Opposition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and
3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer.b
Explanation:
The
Indian general election of 1951–52 elected the first Lok Sabha since India became
independent in August 1947. Until this point, the Indian Constituent Assembly
had served as an interim legislature. See the 'Durations' section below to find
the time-range associated with these elections.
The Indian National Congress (INC) won a landslide victory, winning 364 of the
489 seats and 45% of the total votes polled. This was over four times as many
votes as the second-largest party. Jawaharlal Nehru became the first
democratically elected Prime Minister of the country. In the first Lok Sabha
polls held in 1951, India had around 173 million voters, out of an overall
population of about 360 million. There was no Opposition Party as such because
no single party had managed to cross the mark of even 20 seats in the Lok Sabha
other than Congress. The second largets number were of the Independant Members.
Please see below the table.
In order
to get formal recognition, the concerned party must have at least 10% of the
total strength of the House (55 seats in the Lok Sabha). If any party fails to
get 10% seats in opposition, the House will not have recognised leader of the
opposition.
First Lok Sabha of independent India did not had a recognized “Leader of
Opposition” due to lack of any opposition party having 10% seats.
First time Lok Sabha got recognized “Leader of Opposition” in 1969 in the form
of Ram Subhag Singh from INC (O).
17. Which
of the following leaf modifications occur(s) in the desert areas to inhibit
water loss?
1. Hard
and waxy leaves
2. Tiny leaves
3. Thorns instead of leaves
Select
the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer.d
Explanation:
Leaf modifications of Desert Plant to inhibit water loss for
adaptations and survival of Desert Plant-
1. Wax coatings on leaves prevent water loss through evaporation,
which in the hot desert can cause loss of water from both the surface and the
inside of leaves. Leaves are also smaller on desert plants, further reducing
the possibility for water loss.
2. Deciduous plants in desert ecosystems have adapted through the
activity of their leaves. Leaves on these plants are typically smaller and
coated with wax to prevent evaporation.
3. Plants such as aloes are equipped with fleshy leaves that
contain much of their water supply. Because of their moist inner bodies, these
plants are called succulents. They typically feel spongy and when cut open are
filled with a pulpy flesh, protected by a waxy outer layer.
4. Many plants in the desert conserve water by not having any
leaves at all. Cacti are the most prolific of this plant type. Many cacti have
spines in place of leaves, which conduct photosynthesis and catch dew when the
climate is right. These small structures also reflect light, further reducing
water loss. During heavy rains, cacti will grow temporary root systems and
absorb water. They will then shed the roots when the ground has dried.
18. As
per the NSSO 70th Round “Situation Assessment Survey of
Agricultural Households”, consider the following statements
1. Rajasthan has the highest percentage share of agricultural households among
its rural households.
2. Out of the total agricultural households in the country, a little over 60
percent belong to OBCs.
3. In Kerala, a little over 60 percent of agricultural households reported to
have received maximum income from sources other than agricultural activities.
Answer.d
Explanation:
The
Situation Assessment Survey of Agricultural Households in NSS 70th Round
(January, 2013- December, 2013) was conducted as a repeat survey of Situation
Assessment Survey, 2003 (59th round). The survey also aimed at capturing the
condition of agricultural households in the country in the context of policies
and programmes of Government of India.
During the agricultural year July, 2012- June, 2013, rural India
had an estimated total of 90.2 million agricultural households. These
agricultural households were about 57.8 percent of the total estimated rural
households of the country during the same period.
Uttar Pradesh, with an estimate of 18.05 million agricultural
households, accounted for about 20 percent of all agricultural households in
the country. Among the major States, Rajasthan had highest percentage of
agricultural households (78.4 percent) among its rural households followed by
Uttar Pradesh (74.8 percent) and Madhya Pradesh (70.8 percent). Kerala had the
least percentage share of agricultural households (27.3 percent) in its rural
households preceded by other southern States like Tamil Nadu (34.7 percent) and
Andhra Pradesh (41.5 percent).
Agricultural activity (cultivation, livestock and other
agricultural activities) was reported to be the principal source of income for
majority of the households in all the major States, except Kerala where about
61 percent of the agricultural households reported to have earned maximum
income from sources other than agricultural activities
About 45 percent out of the total agricultural households in the
country belonged to Other Backward Classes (OBC). About 16 percent of
agricultural households were from Scheduled Castes (SC) and 13 percent were
from Scheduled Tribes (ST).
19. How
is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from the Central Pollution
Control Board (CPCB)
1. The
NGT has been established by an Act whereas the CPCB has been created by an
executive order of the Government.
2. The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of
litigation in the higher courts whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness of
streams and wells, and aims to improve the quality of air in the country.
Which of
the statements given above is/are correct
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer.b
Explanation: Any action/decision
by government of India is an executive order. It does not need the approval of
the parliament. Unlike an ordinance, promulgated by the president, executive
orders are issued by the government. For Example: Recently, the government of
India decided to set up a Coal Regulatory authority by an executive order, as
passing the bill in the parliament would take some time.
The National Green Tribunal has been established on 18.10.2010
under the National Green Tribunal Act 2010 for effective and expeditious
disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of
forests and other natural resources including enforcement of any legal right
relating to environment and giving relief and compensation for damages to
persons and property and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.
The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) of India is a statutory
organisation under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
(MoE,FCC). It was established in 1974 under the Water (Prevention and Control
of Pollution) Act, 1974. A function of CPCB comes under both national level and
as State Boards for the Union Territories. CPCB, under the Water (Prevention
and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, and the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution)
Act, 1981, aims to promote cleanliness of streams and wells in different areas
of the States by prevention, control and abatement of water pollution, and to
improve the quality of air and to prevent, control or abate air pollution in
the country.
20.
Consider the following statements :
1. The
Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the
Constitution of India.
2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any
court and no judgement can be made on
it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1
only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer.a
Explanation:
The Ninth
Schedule (Article 31-B) was introduced by the former Prime Minister Jawaharlal
Nehru to keep certain laws particularly those on land reforms beyond the scope
of judicial review. Over the years 284 laws were included in it and
about 30 of them are under challenge.
In its unanimous verdict, the Supreme Court Bench, while
recognising the supremacy of the court to examine the validity of inclusion of
a law in the Ninth Schedule, did not accept the argument that introduction of
Article 31-B was just a one-time measure to protect agrarian laws after the
abolition of the zamindari system and that it outlived its purpose. The Bench
did not go into the question of validity of Article 31-B as it was not under
challenge.
"The power to grant absolute immunity at will is not
compatible with the basic structure doctrine and, therefore, after April 24,
1973 the laws included in the Ninth Schedule would not have absolute immunity.
The validity of such laws can be challenged on the touchstone of basic
structure such as reflected in Article 21 read with Article 14 and Article 19,
Article 15 and the principles underlying these Articles."
21. Which
one of the following best describes the term "Merchant Discount Rate"
sometimes seen in news ?
(a) The
incentive given by a bank to a merchant for accepting payments through debit
cards pertaining to that bank.
( b) The amount paid back by banks to their customers when they use debit cards
for financial transactions for purchasing goods or services.
(c) The charge to a merchant by a bank for accepting payments from his
customers through the bank's debit cards.
(d) The incentive given by the Government, to merchants for promoting digital
payments by their customers through Point of Sale (PoS) machines and debit
cards.
Answer.c
Explanation:
The merchant discount rate is the rate charged to a merchant for payment
processing services on debit and credit card transactions. The merchant must
setup this service and agree to the rate prior to accepting debit and credit
cards as payment. Hence, c is the correct option.
22. What
is/are the consequence/consequences of a country becoming the member of the
`Nuclear Suppliers Group'?
1. It
will have access to the latest and most efficient nuclear technologies.
2. It automatically becomes a member of "The Treaty on the
Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT)".
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer.a
Explanation
: The Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) is a multilateral export control
regime and a group of nuclear supplier countries that seek to prevent nuclear
proliferation by controlling the export of materials, equipment and technology
that can be used to manufacture nuclear weapons. The only grouping India is now
left out of is the Nuclear Suppliers Group.
In June 2017, India became a member of the 35-member Missile
Technology Control Regime and by December last, New Delhi had also gained the
membership of the Wassenaar Arrangement that has 42 members.
India on
19 Jan 2018 joined the 42-member Australia Group, an elite export control
regime against spread of chemical and biological weapons.
The Nuclear Suppliers Group or NSG has 48 member countries that control trade
in sophisticated civil nuclear technology. China was among the countries that
objected to India’s admission to the bloc, ratcheting up tension between the
two countries.
The group goes by consensus approach on the admission of new
members.
Membership of the NSG means:
1. Access to technology for a range of uses from medicine to
building nuclear power plants for India from the NSG which is essentially a
traders’ cartel. India has its own indigenously developed technology but to get
its hands on state of the art technology that countries within the NSG possess,
it has to become part of the group.
2. With India committed to reducing dependence on fossil fuels and
ensuring that 40% of its energy is sourced from renewable and clean sources,
there is a pressing need to scale up nuclear power production. This can only
happen if India gains access to the NSG. Even if India today can buy power
plants from the global market thanks to the one time NSG waiver in 2008, there
are still many types of technologies India can be denied as it is outside the
NSG.
3. India could sign the nuclear non-proliferation treaty and gain
access to all this know-how but that would mean giving up its entire nuclear
arsenal. Given that it is situated in an unstable and unpredictable
neighbourhood India is unlikely to sign the NPT or accede to the Comprehensive
Test Ban Treaty (CTBT) that puts curbs on any further nuclear tests.
4. With access to latest technology, India can commercialize the
production of nuclear power equipment. This in turn will boost innovation and
high tech manufacturing in India and can be leveraged for economic and
strategic benefits.
23. With
reference to India's decision to levy an equalization tax of 6% on online
advertisement services offered by non-resident entities, which of the following
statements is/are correct?
1. It is
introduced as a part of the Income Tax Act.
2. Non-resident entities that offer advertisement services in India can claim a
tax credit in their home country under the "Double Taxation Avoidance
Agreements".
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer.a
Explanation: The
government’s decision to levy an equalisation tax of 6 per cent on online
advertisement services offered in the country by non-resident entities will
impact users, especially start-ups that rely almost entirely on the online
world to popularize their services. Further, as the levy is not introduced as
part of the Income Tax Act but as a separate legislation under the Finance
Bill, global firms that offer such services in India cannot claim a tax credit
in their home country under the double taxation avoidance agreements.
Finance Minister Arun Jaitley during Budget speech said that, “In order to tap
tax on income accruing to foreign e-commerce companies from India it is
proposed that a person making a payment to a non-resident (global advertising
platform), who does not have a permanent establishment, exceeding in aggregate
Rs.1 lakh in a year, as consideration for online advertisement, will withhold
tax at 6 per cent of gross amount paid, as equalisation levy,”.
Hence, d is the correct option.
24.
Consider the following statements
1. The
Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review Committee Report has
recommended a debt to GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined) government by
2023, comprising 40% for the Central Government and 20% for the State
Governments.
2. The Central Government has domestic liabilities of 21% of GDP as compared to
that of war of GDP of the State 2 Governments.
3. As per the Constitution of India, it is mandatory for a State to take the
Central Government’s consent for raising any loan if the former owes any
outstanding liabilities to the latter.
Which of
the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer.c
Explanation:
The FRBM Review Committee (Chairperson: Mr. N.K. Singh) submitted
its report in January 2017. The Report was made public in April 2017. The
Committee proposed a draft Debt Management and Fiscal Responsibility Bill, 2017
to replace the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003 (FRBM
Act). Key recommendations of the Committee and features of the draft Bill are summarised
below.
1. Debt to GDP ratio: The Committee suggested using debt as the
primary target for fiscal policy. A debt to GDP ratio of 60% should be targeted
with a 40% limit for the centre and 20% limit for the states. It noted that
majority of the countries that have adopted fiscal rules have targeted a debt
to GDP ratio of 60%. The targeted debt to GDP ratio should be achieved by 2023.
This ratio is expected to be around 70% in 2017.
2. Fiscal Council: The Committee proposed to create an autonomous
Fiscal Council with a Chairperson and two members appointed by the centre. To
maintain its independence, it proposed a non-renewable four-year term for the
Chairperson and members. Further, these people should not be employees in the
central or state governments at the time of appointment.
3. Role of the Council: The role of the Council would include: (i)
preparing multi-year fiscal forecasts, (ii) recommending changes to the fiscal
strategy, (iii) improving quality of fiscal data, (iv) advising the government if
conditions exist to deviate from the fiscal target, and (v) advising the
government to take corrective action for non-compliance with the Bill.
4. Deviations: The Committee noted that under the FRBM Act, the
government can deviate from the targets in case of a national calamity,
national security or other exceptional circumstances notified by it. Allowing
the government to notify these grounds diluted the 2003 Act. The Committee
suggested that grounds in which the government can deviate from the targets should
be clearly specified, and the government should not be allowed to notify other
circumstances.
5. Further, the government may be allowed to deviate from the
specified targets upon the advice of the Fiscal Council in the following
circumstances: (i) considerations of national security, war, national
calamities and collapse of agriculture affecting output and incomes, (ii)
structural reforms in the economy resulting in fiscal implications, or (iii)
decline in real output growth of at least 3% below the average of the previous
four quarters. These deviations cannot be more than 0.5% of GDP in a year.
6. Borrowings from the RBI: The draft Bill restricts the
government from borrowing from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) except when: (i)
the centre has to meet a temporary shortfall in receipts, (ii) RBI subscribes
to government securities to finance any deviations from the specified targets,
or (iii) RBI purchases government securities from the secondary market.
Central Government liability
Central Government liability at 46.1% of GDP at end-March 2017 has
seen a decline from 47.7 % at end March 2016, in continuation with long term
trend of decline being seen from 61.4% in 2001-02.
25.
Consider the following statements
1. The quantity of imported edible oils is more than the domestic production of
edible oils in the last five years.
2. The Government does not impose any customs duty on all the imported edible
oils a special case.
Which of two statements given above is/are correct
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer.a
Explanation: According
to Solvent Extractors’ Association of India, India’s Vegetable Oil imports for
the year 2016-17 (November 2016 to October 2017) is reported at 15.44 million
tons compared to 14.74 million tons last year (2015-16) and 10.68 million tons
in 2012-13 .
The
Vegetable Oil import, which includes edible oil and non-edible oil, has jumped
by 45% in last 5 years.
Import of edible oil has sharply increased in last few years due to stagnant
Oilseed production and rising demand in the country. India’s dependence on
imported Oil has increased to 70% of its requirements.
Customs duty on edible oils
As India’s edible oil imports surge during the past six months,
depressing prices of domestically produced mustard, soyabean and other soft
oils and in turn cutting returns of farmers and processors, the industry has
demanded substantial increase in import duty to curtail imports.
The duty on two major edible oils, namely crude sunflower seed oil
and crude canola/rapeseed/mustard is only 25 per cent, while crude soyabean oil
attracts 30 per cent duty.
26. He
wrote biographies of Mazzini, Garibaldi, Shivaji and Shrikrishna; stayed in
America for some time; and was also elected to the Central Assembly. He was
(a) Aurobindo
Ghosh
(b) Bipin Chandra Pal
(c) Lala Lajpat Rai
(d) Motilal Nehru
Answer.c
Explanation: Lala
Lajpat Rai was the most prolific writer among his contemporary nationalist
leaders of India. His literary activity started when he was still in his teens
and he continued to write almost to the last day of his life. To rouse the
Punjabis from slumber and inspire them with patriotic zeal, He wrote the
biographies of Mazzini, Garibaldi, Shivaji, Dayanand and Shri Krishna, besides
other important works in English, Hindi and Urdu.
He visited USA and Japan where he kept in touch with the Indian
revolutionaries. In England, he also became a member of the British Labour
party. In recognition of his outstanding role in the freedom movement, he was
elected President of the Indian National Congress at the Calcutta session
(1920). Hence, c is the correct option.
27.
Consider the following statements :
1.
Aadhaar card can be used as a proof of citizenship or domicile.
2. Once issued, Aadhaar number cannot be deactivated or omitted by the Issuing
Authority.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer.d
Explanation: Aadhar
Card is a 12-digit unique number issued by the Unique Identification Authority
of India (UIDAI) by taking a person's biometric details such as iris scan and
fingerprints, and demographic information like date of birth and address.
The Aadhaar Act regulations, which are currently in Parliament,
state that an individual’s Aadhaar number may be “omitted” permanently or
deactivated temporarily by the Unique Identification Authority of India, the
agency responsible for issuing the numbers and managing the database. The
regulations give the Authority the power to deactivate Aadhaar numbers even in
the absence of an effective grievance redressal procedure for those whose
numbers have been suspended.
Calcutta High Court on 26th Dec 2016 ruled that Aadhaar Card is
not a proof of citizenship and stated that “Aadhaar Card by itself shall not
confer any right of or be proof of citizenship or domicile in respect of the
holder thereto” while rejecting a claim of citizenship of the accused who was
issued the card in view of his long residence in the country.
28. Which
of the following has/have shrunk immensely/dried up in the recent past due to
human activities ?
1. Aral
Sea
2. Black Sea
3. Lake Baikal
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1
only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 only
(d) I and 3
Answer.d
Explanation: A
growing list of human and environmental pressures threaten the world’s largest
lakes, inhibiting their ability to supply water, drive economic activity,
preserve biodiversity, and sustain communities.
The Aral Sea, once the fourth largest lake in the world, has been
shrinking steadily since the 1960s.
Lake Baikal, the biggest and oldest lake in the world, is home to
approximately 2,500 species of plants and animals. It is drying up as the
lake’s water levels continue to drop, according to the local natural resources
ministry.
29.
"Rule of Law Index" is released by which of the following ?
(a)
Amnesty International
(b) International Court of Justice
(c) The Office of UN Commissioner for Human Rights
(d) World Justice Project
Answer.d
Explanation: The World
Justice Project (WJP) is an American independent, multidisciplinary
organization with the stated mission of "working to advance the rule of
law around the world". It works through three programs — Research and
Scholarship, the WJP Rule of Law Index, and Engagement. WJP seeks to increase
public awareness about the foundational importance of the rule of law,
stimulate government reforms, and develop practical programs at the community
level.
30. Which
one of the following links all the ATMs in India ?
(a)
Indian banks' Association
(b) National Securities Depository Limited
(c) National Payments Corporation of India
(d) Reserve Bank of India
Answer.c
Explanation
: National Financial Switch (NFS) is the largest network of
shared automated teller machines (ATMs) in India. It was designed, developed
and deployed by the Institute for Development and Research in Banking
Technology (IDRBT) in 2004, with the goal of inter-connecting the ATMs in the
country and facilitating convenience banking.
It is run by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI).
National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) is an umbrella organization for
all retail payments in India.
It was set up with the guidance and support of the Reserve Bank of
India (RBI) and Indian Banks Association (IBA). Hence, c is the correct option.
31. Which
one of the following statements correctly describes the meaning of legal tender
money ?
(a) The
money which is tendered in courts of law to defray the fee of legal cases
(b) The money which a creditor is under compulsion to accept in settlement of
his claims
(c) The bank money in the form of cheques, drafts, bills of exchange, etc.
(d) The metallic money in circulation in a country
Answer.b
Explanation: Legal
tender money is a type of payment that is protected by law.
Legal tender is also known as forced tender which is very secured and it is
impossible to deny the legal tender while subsiding a debt which is assigned in
the same medium of exchange. In other words we can say that the term legal
tender does not represent the money itself, rather it is a kind of status which
can be bestowed on certain types of money.
The options given in the Question does not properly explain the definition of legal
tender money. So, therefore the most suitable explanation is answer b.
32. If a
commodity is provided free to the public by the Government, then
(a) the
opportunity cost is zero.
(b) the opportunity cost is ignored.
(c) the opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to
the tax-paying public.
(d) the opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to
the Government.
Answer.d
Explanation: Opportunity
cost is the cost which could have been earned from second best investment
option. For free goods, the opportunity cost is zero for the person consuming
it, however, it is not so for the provider of that good. The choice of spending
on various alternatives is available with government and not tax payers. Thus,
it is transferred to government.
33.
Increase in absolute and per capita real GNP do not connote a higher level of
economic development, if
(a) industrial output fails to keep pace with agricultural output.
(b) agricultural output fails to keep pace with industrial output.
(c) poverty and unemployment increase.
(d) imports grow faster than exports.
Answer.c
Explanation: Per
capita GNP is the total value of all the goods and services produced by a
country in a year including income from foreign investments, divided by the
number of people living there. For countries which have a lot of foreign
investments, GNP per capita is a more accurate economic indicator.
GNP = GDP + Net income inflow from abroad – Net income outflow to foreign
countries.
Therefore, if gains of increase in per capita income are grabbed by a small
section of society, then economic growth will not lead to economic development.
34.
Consider the following statements: Human capital formation as a concept is
better explained in terms of a process, which enables
1.
individuals of a country to accumulate more capital.
2. increasing the knowledge, skill levels and capacities of the people of the
country.
3. accumulation of tangible wealth.
4. accumulation of intangible wealth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Answer.b
Explanation: The term
human capital formation implies the development of abilities and skills among
the population of the country.
According to Harbison, the human capital formation indicates, “The process of
acquiring and increasing the number of persons who have the skills, education
and experience which are critical for the economic and the political
development of the country. Human capital formation is thus associated with
investment in man and his development as a creative and productive resource.”
Thus, human capital formation indicates investment for imparting education,
improvement of health and training of workers in specialised skills. Although
the accumulation of physical capital is quite important in the process of
economic growth of a country but with the passage of time, it is being
increasingly realised that the growth of tangible capital stock depends
extensively on the human capital formation must get its due importance.
35.
Despite being a high saving economy, capital formation may not result in
significant increase in output due to
(a) weak
administrative machinery
(b) illiteracy
(c) high population density
(d) high capital-output ratio
Answer.d
Explanation: Without
the availability of adequate capital either in the form of physical capital or
in the form of human capital development of nation is not possible. The higher
the rate of capital formation, the faster is the pace of economic growth.
Saving and investment are essential for capital formation. But savings are
different from hoardings. For savings to be utilised for investment purposes,
they must be mobilised in banks and financial institutions. And the
businessmen, the entrepreneurs and the farmers invest these community savings
on capital goods by taking loans from these banks and financial institutions.
This is capital formation.
The process of capital formation involves three steps: Increase in the volume
of real savings, Mobilisation of savings through financial and credit
institutions and Investment of savings. So, if a country has high savings but
poor technology, low efficiency then economic growth will not be possible.
36. After
the Santhal Uprising subsided, what was/were the measure/measures taken by the
colonial government?
1. The
territories called `Santhal Paraganas' were created.
2. It became illegal for a Santhal to transfer land to a non-Santhal.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer.c
Explanation: In
1855-56 the Santhal Revolt took place. Santhals are a group of tribals
concentrated in the state of Jharkhand. This was the first peasant movement
which took place in India. The revolt has reference to the establishment of the
permanent land settlement of 1793.
Santhal rebellion was led by 4 Murmu brothers named Sindhu, Kanhu , Chand and
Bhairav against the oppressive zamindari system. The Santhals showed exemplary
courage in fighting against the British, despite being beaten and harassed. The
British knew it well that if they want to rule in the area they have to agree
to the main demands of the Santhals and accord them the dignity due to them.
Therefore, the District of Santhal Pargana was created in 1885 after the
partition of Bhagalpur and Birbhum.
37.
Economically, one of the results of the British rule in India in the 19th
century was the
(a)
increase in the export of Indian handicrafts
(b) growth in the number of Indian owned factories
(c) commercialization of Indian agriculture
(d) rapid increase in the urban population
Answer.c
Explanation: The
British manufacturers looked upon the East India Company, its monopoly of
eastern trade, and its methods of exploitation of India through control of
India’s revenues and export trade, to be the chief obstacles in the fulfilment
of their dreams.
Between 1793 and 1813, they launched a powerful campaign against the Company
and its commercial privileges and finally succeeded in 1813 in abolishing its
monopoly of Indian trade.
With this event, a new phase in Britain’s economic relations with
India began. Agricultural India was to be made an economic colony of industrial
England. The Government of India now followed a policy of free trade or
unrestricted entry of British goods. Therefore we can say that when the industrial
revolution in England gained pace commercialization of Indian agriculture
started.
38. If
the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the
Constitution in respect of a particular State, then
(a) the
Assembly of the State is automatically dissolved.
(b) the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or
under the authority of the Parliament.
(c) Article 19 is suspended in that State.
(d) the President can make laws relating to that State.
Answer.b
Explanation: Emergency
Provisions are included in part XVIII from articles 352 to 360 in the Constitution
for dealing with extraordinary situations that may threaten the peace,
security, stability and governance of the country or a part thereof.
According to the Constitution it is the duty of the Union Government to ensure
that governance of a State is carried on in accordance with the provisions of
the Constitution. Under Article 356, the President may issue a proclamation to
impose emergency in a state if he is satisfied on receipt of a report from the
Governor of the concerned State, or otherwise, that a situation has arisen
under which the administration of the State cannot be carried on according to
the provisions of the constitution.
- In such a situation, proclamation of emergency by the President is on account
of the failure (or breakdown) of constitutional machinery. Thus it is known as
“President’s Rule” or “State Emergency” or “Constitutional Emergency”.
Effects of Imposition of President’s Rule in a State
- The President can assume to himself all or any of the
functions of the State Government or he may vest all or any of those functions
with the Governor or any other executive authority.
- The President may dissolve the State Legislative
Assembly or put it under suspension. He may authorize the Parliament to make
laws on behalf of the State Legislature.
- The Parliament can delegate the power to make laws for the
state to the President or any other body specified by him when the state
legislature is suspended or dissolved.
39.
Consider the following pairs:
Craft
Heritage of
1. Puthukkuli shawls — Tamil Nadu
2. Sujni embroidery — Maharashtra
3. Uppada Jamdani saris — Karnataka
Which of
the pairs given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3
Answer.a
Explanation:
Sujni
Embroidery is of Bihar
Uppada Jamdani Saris is of Andhra Pradesh
40. In
which of the following areas can GPS technology be used?
1. Mobile
phone operations
2. Banking operations
3. Controlling the power grids
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1
only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer.d
Explanation: GPS is
the Global Positioning System. It s a global navigation satellite system that
uses at least 24 satellites, a receiver and algorithms to provide location,
velocity and time synchronization for air, sea and land travel.GPS works at all
times and in almost all weather conditions.
5 basic uses of GPS are:
Location —
Determining a position.
Navigation
— Getting from one location to another.
Tracking — Monitoring object or personal movement.
Mapping — Creating maps of the world
Timing — Making it possible to take precise time
measurements.
Some examples of GPS applications include: Agriculture, Astronomy,
Automated vehicle, Cellular telephony, Clock synchronization, Disaster
relief/emergency services, Radio occultation for weather and atmospheric
science applications, Geofencing, GPS aircraft tracking, for mining, or for
data mining, for navigation and surveying.
Who Uses
GPS?
Some of the applications that GPS systems are currently being used
for around the world include mining, aviation, surveying, agriculture, marine,
recreation, and military. These days doctors, scientists, farmers, soldiers,
pilots, hikers, delivery drivers, sailors, fishermen, dispatchers, athletes,
and people from many other walks of life are using GPS systems in ways that
make their work more productive, safer, and easier.
41.
Consider the following statements:
1. The
Reserve Bank of India manages and services Government of India Securities but
not any State Government Securities.
2. Treasury bills are issued by the Government of India and there are no
treasury bills issued by the State Governments.
3. Treasury bills offer are issued at a discount from the par value. Which of
the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 Only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer.c
Explanation: There are
two types of bills viz. Treasury Bills and commercial bills. Treasury Bills are
issued by the Central Government; Commercial Bills are issued by financial
institutions.
Reserve Bank of India maintains the Principal Accounts of Central as well as
State Governments at its Central Accounts Section, Nagpur.
Treasury Bills are issued only by the central government in India. The State
governments do not issue any treasury bills. Interest on the treasury bills is
determined by market forces.
T-Bills are issued on discount to face value, while the holder gets the face
value on maturity. The return on T-Bills is the difference between the issue
price and face value. When referring to the value of financial instruments,
there's no difference between par value and face value.
42.
Consider the following statements:
1. The
Earth's magnetic field has reversed every few hundred thousand years.
2. When the Earth was created more than 4000 million years ago, there was 54%
oxygen and no carbon dioxide.
3. When living organisms originated, they modified the early atmosphere of the
Earth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1
only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer.c
Explanation:
The Earth
formed approximately 4.5 billion years ago, along with the other seven planets
in the solar system. As the Earth cooled, a primitive atmosphere was created by
the out-gassing of early volcanoes. The early atmosphere contained no oxygen
and would have been toxic to human beings, as well as most other life on Earth
today.
Based on an analysis of gases vented by modern volcanoes, it seems
likely that this early atmosphere consisted mostly of water vapour (H2O) and
carbon dioxide (CO2) and nitrogen gas (N2).
In the whole process of evolution, the living organism changed the
chemical composition of the Atmosphere. For example, oxygen came from the
photosynthesis.
43. The
terms ‘Wanna Cry, Petya and Eternal Blue' sometimes mentioned in the news
recently are related to
(a)
Exo-planets
(b) Crypto-currency
(c) Cyber attacks
(d) Mini satellites
Answer.c
Explanation: The Petya
and WannaCry cyber-attacks in May and June 2017; are two of the biggest in
history and impacted the finances of companies throughout the globe. Wanna Cry,
which affected numerous organisations, including the NHS, spread to 150
countries and is estimated to have cost the global economy £6bn.
44. With
reference to the circumstances in Indian agriculture, the concept of
"Conservation Agriculture" assumes significance. Which of the
following fall under the Conservation Agriculture?
1.
Avoiding the monoculture practices
2. Adopting minimum tillage
3. Avoiding the cultivation of plantation crops
4. Using crop residues to cover soil surface
5. Adopting spatial and temporal crop sequencing/crop rotations
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 3
and 4
(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5
(c) 2, 4 and 5
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 5
Answer.d
Explanation:
Conservation agriculture (CA) technologies involve minimum soil
disturbance, permanent soil cover through crop residues or cover crops, and
crop rotations for achieving higher productivity.
Main features of Conservation agriculture (CA) are; Least
interference with natural processes, No-till or drastically reduced tillage
(biological tillage, Low wind and soil erosion, Surface retention of residues
(permanently covered),Infiltration rate of water is high, Use of in-situ
organics/composts, Brown manuring/cover crops (surface retention),Diversified
and more efficient rotations etc.
The principal indicators of non-sustainability of agricultural
systems includes: soil erosion, soil organic matter decline, salinization.
These are caused mainly by: (i) intensive tillage induced soil organic matter
decline, soil structural degradation, water and wind erosion, reduced water
infiltration rates, surface sealing and crusting, soil compaction, (ii)
insufficient return of organic material, and (iii) monocropping.
45. The
term "sixth mass extinction/sixth extinction" is often mentioned in
the news in the context of the discussion of
(a)
Widespread monoculture practices in agriculture and large-scale commercial
farming with indiscriminate use of chemicals in many parts of the world that
may result in the loss of good native ecosystems.
(b) Fears of a possible collision of a meteorite with the Earth in the near
future in the manner it happened 65 million years ago that caused the mass
extinction of many species including those of dinosaurs. .
(c) Large scale cultivation of genetically modified crops in many parts of the
world and promoting their cultivation in other parts of the world which may
cause the disappearance of good native crop plants and the loss of food
biodiversity.
(d) Mankind's over-exploitation/misuse of natural resources, fragmentation/loss
of natural habitats, destruction of ecosystems, pollution and global climate change.
Answer.d
Explanation:
The
scientists found billions of populations of mammals, birds, reptiles and
amphibians have been lost all over the planet, leading them to say a sixth mass
extinction has already progressed further than was thought.
46. Which
of the following led to the introduction of English Education in India ?
1.
Charter Act of 1813
2. General Committee of Public Instruction, 1823
3. Orientalist and Anglicist Controversy
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1 and
2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer.a
Explanation:
According to the clause 43 of the Charter Act of 1813 the Company
had partly undertaken the responsibility of education in India and a sum of one
lakh of rupees had been earmarked for the purpose. But no concrete steps were
taken in this regard before 1823. The section of the Charter Act of 1813
remained inoperative till 1823.
At last in 1823 an official agency, General Committee of Public
Instruction (G.C.P.I.) was created to deal with educational matters,
particularly the expenditure of the sum of one lakh of rupees. “Thus a state
system of edu¬cation was begun almost simultaneously in all the three
Presidencies by about 1823 and continued to expand till 1833. The educational
grant of India was also increased from one lakh to ten lakhs of rupees per
annum”
Thus the activities of the G.C.P.I. for the decade from 1823
clearly indicate¬ its inclination towards Orientalism. This policy of
Orientalism was se¬verely attacked by the enlightened Indians under the
leadership of Raja Rammohanroy. He submitted a memorandum to the
Governor-General on 11th December, 1823 and urged the Government to abandon the
proposal for establishing a Sanskrit College in Calcutta.
But no heed was paid to this memorial and the Committee went
against the trend of history and the de¬sire for English education among
Indians.
47. Which
one of the following is an artificial lake ?
(a)
Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu)
(b) Kolleru (Andhra Pradesh)
(c) N ainital (Uttarakhand)
(d) Renuka (Himachal Pradesh)
Answer.a
Explanation:
Kodaikanal Lake, also known as Kodai Lake is a manmade lake
located in the Kodaikanal city in Dindigul district in Tamil Nadu, India. Sir
Vere Henry Levinge,the then Collector of Madurai, was instrumental in creating
the lake in 1863, amidst the Kodaikanal town which was developed by the British
and early missionaries from USA.The lake is said to be Kodaikanal's most
popular geographic landmark and tourist attraction.
48. With
reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following
statements
1. It is
the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment.
2. It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills,
entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy.
3. It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the
country to the National Skill Qualification Framework.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and
3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer.c
Explanation:
Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) is the flagship scheme
of the Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship (MSDE). Apart from
providing training according to the National Skills Qualification Framework
(NSQF), Training Centres shall also impart training in Soft Skills, Entrepreneurship,
Financial and Digital Literacy.
The Recognition of Prior Learning aims to align the competencies
of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skills
Qualification Framework (NSQF).
49. In
1920, which of the following changed its name to “Swarajya Sabha”?
(a) All
India Home Rule League
(b) Hindu Mahasabha
(c) South Indian Liberal Federation
(d) The Servants of India Society
Answer.a
Explanation:
The Home Rule League was renamed to Swarajya Sabha in 1920. Gandhi
ji joined this league and accepted the presidentship of the renamed
organisation “Swarajya Sabha”.
50. Which
among the following events happened earliest ?
(a) Swami
Dayanand established AryaSamaj.
(b) Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neeldarpan.
(c) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote Anandmath.
(d) Satyendranath Tagore became the first Indian to succeed in the Indian Civil
Services Examination.
Answer.b
Explanation:
1.
Dayanand Saraswati was born in 1824 in a Brahmin family in Morvi in Gujarat as
Mula Shankar. He founded the Arya Samaj in Bombay in 1875.
2. Nil Darpan is a Bengali play written by Dinabandhu Mitra in 1858–1859. The
play was published from Dhaka in 1860, under a pseudonym of the author.
3. Anandamath is a Bengali fiction, written by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay and
published in 1882. Set in the background of the Sannyasi Rebellion in the late
18th century.
4. Satyendranath Tagore (1st June, 1842 – 9th January, 1923) was the first
Indian to join the Indian Civil Service. Satyendranath was selected for the
Indian Civil Service in June, 1863.He completed his probationary training and
returned to India in November 1864. Satyendranath was posted to Bombay presidency.
51. Which
of the following is/are the possible consequence/s of heavy sand mining in
riverbeds ?
1.
Decreased salinity in the river
2. Pollution of groundwater
3. Lowering of the water-table
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1 ,2 and 3
Answer.b
Explanation:
Excessive
in-stream sand-and-gravel mining causes the degradation of rivers. Instream
mining lowers the stream bottom, which may lead to bank erosion. Depletion of
sand in the streambed and along coastal areas causes the deepening of rivers
and estuaries, and the enlargement of river mouths and coastal inlets. It may
also lead to saline-water intrusion from the nearby sea.
In-stream sand mining results in the destruction of aquatic and riparian
habitat through large changes in the channel morphology. Impacts include bed
degradation, bed coarsening, lowered water tables near the streambed, and
channel instability.
The most important effects of in-stream sand mining on aquatic habitats
are bed degradation and sedimentation, which can have substantial negative
effects on aquatic life.
Excessive in-stream sand mining is a threat to bridges, river
banks and nearby structures. Sand mining also affects the adjoining groundwater
system and the uses that local people make of the river.
52. With
reference to agricultural soils, consider the following statements :
1. A high
content of organic matter in soil drastically reduces its water holding
capacity.
2. Soil does not play any role in the sulphur cycle.
3. Irrigation over a period of time can contribute to the salinization of some
agricultural lands. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer.b
Explanation: Plants
obtain nutrients from two natural sources: organic matter and minerals. Organic
matter includes any plant or animal material that returns to the soil and goes
through the decomposition process. In addition to providing nutrients and
habitat to organisms living in the soil, organic matter also binds soil
particles into aggregates and improves the water holding capacity of soil.
The sulfur cycle is the collection of processes by which sulfur moves to and
from rock, waterways and living systems.The isotopic composition of sedimentary
sulfides provides primary information on the evolution of the sulfur cycle.
Too much salt can reduce crop production and water infiltration on soils that
have been irrigated for 20 years or more. Too little salt can also result in a
chemically compacted soil. The level of sodium (Na) in a soil can result in
soil particles or even layers of differing soil profiles forming a compacted
layer that the roots do not penetrate.
53. The
Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE), a UN mechanism to assist
countries transition towards greener and more inclusive economies, emerged at
(a) The Earth Summit on Sustainable Development 2002, Johannesburg
(b) The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development 2012, Rio de
Janeiro
(c) The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change 2015, Paris
(d) The World Sustainable Development Summit 2016, New Delhi
Answer.b
Explanation: The
Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE) was launched in 2013 as a
response to the call at Rio+20 to support those countries wishing to embark on
greener and more inclusive growth trajectories.
In 2012, Rio+20 (the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development) was
held in Brazil. The conference’s outcome document entitled The Future We Want
was a call to action for governments, business and the UN alike to support
countries interested in transition to a green economy.
54.
"3D printing" has applications in which of the following?
1.
Preparation of confectionery items
2. Manufacture of bionic ears
3. Automotive industry
4. Reconstructive surgeries
5. Data processing technologies
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1, 3
and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 5 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Answer.d
Explanation:
There are
endless possibilities for the utilization of 3d Printing. We can do
anything with 3d printing machines. All the above things can be done with the
help of 3d Printing.
55.
Consider the following statements:
1. The
Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian territory.
2. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar.
3. The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has
remained inactive since then.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3
Answer.d
Explanation: According
to the researchers at Goa-based National Institute of Oceanography (NIO), the
Barren Island volcano, India’s only live volcano in the Andaman and Nicobar
islands. The Barren Island volcano, located 140-km North-East of Port Blair,
dormant for more than 150 years started erupting in 1991.
56. Why
is a plant called Prosopis juliflora often mentioned in news ?
(a) Its extract is widely used in cosmetics.
(b) It tends to reduce the biodiversity in the area in which it grows.
(c) Its extract is used in the synthesis of pesticides.
(d) None of the above
Answer.b
Explanation: Prosopis
juliflora is a shrub or small tree in the family Fabaceae, a kind of mesquite.
It is native to Mexico, South America and the Caribbean. It is a contributing
factor to continuing transmission of malaria, especially during dry periods
when sugar sources from native plants are largely unavailable to mosquitoes.
This is not only a big threat to the country's biodiversity but
also has become a burden on the environment. This tree is scattered in around
12 states of the country. It has destroyed about 500 species of native plants.
If it has not been eliminated on time, it will destroy the remaining
bio-diversity of the country. Its roots are too much deep which absorbs lot
water also. It was brought to India in 1870.
Uses
Its uses include forage, wood and environmental management.
57.
Consider the following statements
1. Most of the world's coral reefs are in tropical waters.
2. More than one-third of the world's coral reefs are located in the
territories of
Australia, Indonesia and Philippines.
3. Coral reefs host far more number of animal phyla than those hosted by
tropical rainforests.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer.d
Explanation:
Coral reefs are highly diverse ecosystems vital to the welfare of
human populations throughout the tropical area. The immediate threat to coral
reefs from climate change is acute; 16% of the world’s reef suffered serious
damages during the global bleaching event of 1998.
58.
"Momentum for Change : Climate Neutral Now" is an initiative launched
by
(a) The
Intergovernmentai Panel on Climate Change
(b) The UNEP Secretariat
(c) The UNFCCC Secretariat
(d) The World Meteorological Organisation
Answer.c
Explanation:
The
UNFCCC secretariat launched its Climate Neutral Now initiative in 2015. The
following year, the secretariat launched a new pillar under its Momentum for
Change initiative focused on Climate Neutral Now, as part of larger efforts to
showcase successful climate action around the world.
Climate neutrality is a three step process, which requires
individuals, companies and governments to:
·
Measure their climate footprint;
·
Reduce their emissions as much as possible;
·
Offset what they cannot reduce with UN certified emission
reductions.
59. With
reference to educational institutes during colonial rule in India, consider the
following pairs :
Institution
Founder
1. Sanskrit College at Benaras - William Jones
2. Calcutta Madarsa
-
Warren Hastings
3. Fort William College
-
Arthur Wellesley
Which of the pairs given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and
2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
Answer.b
Explanation: In 1781,
Warren Hastings founded the Madarasa Aliya or Calcutta Madarasa.
Government Sanskrit College was the first college in Benaras.
Established in 1791, it was a landmark college in India from where several
notable teachers emerged. In 1958 it merged with Sampurnanand Sanskrit
University.
Fort William College (also called the College of Fort William) was
an academy and learning centre of Oriental studies established by Lord
Wellesley(Richard Colley Wellesley, 1st Marquess Wellesley), then
Governor-General of British India. The law to establish its foundation was passed
on 4 May 1800, to commemorate the first anniversary of the victory over Tipu
Sultan at Seringapatam.
60.
Consider the following pairs :
Regions
sometimes mentioned in news Country
1. Catalonia
-
Spain
2. Crimea
-
Hungary
3. Mindanao
-
Philippines
4. Oromia
-
Nigeria
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched ?
(a) 1, 2 and
3
(b)) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 4 only
Answer.c
Explanation:
Correct matching of the Regions and Country are:
Catalonia - Spain
Crimea - Ukraine
Mindanao - Philippines
Oromia – Ethiopia
61.
Consider the following statements:
1.
Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is the amount that banks have to maintain in the
form of their own funds to offset any loss that banks incur if the
account-holders fail to repay dues.
2. CAR is decided by each individual bank.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer.a
Explanation: Capital
Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is also known as Capital to Risk (weighted) Assets Ratio
(CRAR). It is the ratio of a bank's capital in relation to its risk weighted
assets and current liabilities. It is a measure of bank's capital. It is
expressed as a percentage of a bank's risk weighted credit exposures. CAR is
not decided by each individual bank but by RBI on the basis of Basel Committee
recommendations.
The Basel
III accord is the latest international framework on how banks should calculate
their capital. It is set to be implemented on 31 March, 2018.
They created Basel III to “improve the banking sector’s ability to absorb
shocks arising from financial and economic stress, whatever the source.” In
other words, the Committee wanted to make sure that banks could survive major
financial crises.
The framework divides the capital of banks into two tiers:
– Tier I comprises ordinary share capital, audited revenue
reserves, future tax benefits, and intangible assets.
– Tier II comprises unaudited retained earnings, general
provisions for bad debts, revaluation reserves, perpetual subordinated debt. It
also includes perpetual cumulative preference shares and subordinated debt.
62. The
identity platform `Aadhaar' provides open "Application Programming
Interfaces (APIs)". What does it imply?
1. It can
be integrated into any electronic device.
2. Online authentication using iris is possible.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer.c
Explanation: The UIDAI
is charged with the responsibility of issuing Indian residents with
identification numbers that are unique to facilitate authentication and
verification of Indian residents.
The API authenticates Indian residents wishing to get services
from Indian government agencies. Responses and calls for Aadhaar API are in XML
format.
The Application Programming Interface released by Aadhaar contains
individual’s protocol, specifications about security and data in for of API
format.
The open source programming offered by Aadhaar API in its project
of unique identification in India helps developers of the software to build and
manage data applications. With the API system the Aadhaar team handling the
identification process is able to enjoy a smooth flow of activities without
undue interferences. With the open source program available, developers will be
able to create apps using standards that are open which will eventually enhance
interoperability.
The connection of Aadhaar API with open source programming is also
aimed at enhancing performance metrics and prudency that will ensure
transparency through public portals. The open source program supports java,
NET, windows and Linux and developers of Aadhaar API can easily create an
ecosystem that allows him to play libraries stored in the standard API.
For complete authentication of individuals, the authentication API
would require 12 digits together with the various biometric identifications
such as iris scans and fingerprints. The API system gives responses in binary
forms of either no or yes which guarantees privacy.
63. Very
recently, in which of the following countries have lakhs of people either
suffered from severe famine/acute malnutrition or died due to starvation caused
by war/ethnic conflicts ?
(a) Angola
and Zambia
(b) Morocco and Tunisia
(c) Venezuela and Colombia
(d) Yemen and South Sudan
Answer.d
Explanation: The
2017 Global Hunger Index (GHI) shows long-term progress in reducing hunger in
the world. The report ranked 119 countries in the developing world, nearly half
of which have ‘extremely alarming,’ ‘alarming’ or ’serious’ hunger levels.
According to 2017 Global Hunger Index scores, the level of hunger in the world
has decreased by 27 percent from the 2000 level. India ranked 100th position
among 119 countries on Global Hunger Index (GHI) 2017.
2017 GHI scores still raise significant concern, including Somalia,
South Sudan, and Syria. Even the United Nations declared that more than 20
million people are at risk of famine in Nigeria, Somalia, South Sudan and
Yemen.
Yemen was the sole country on the 2017 Global Hunger Index
suffering from "alarming" or "extremely alarming" levels of
hunger that's not located in Africa. Yemen ranked 114th out of the 119
countries assessed, and its hunger level, falling in the "alarming"
category, has dropped 7 percent in the past 17 years.
South Sudan lacked sufficient data for calculating this year's
Global Hunger Index score. But in February, the United Nations declared famine
in parts of the country, the first to be announced anywhere in the world since
2011. The formal declaration meant South Sudanese were already dying of hunger.
64.
Regarding Wood's Dispatch, which of the following statements are true ?
1.
Grants-in-Aid system was introduced.
2. Establishment of universities was recommended.
3. English as a medium of instruction at all levels of education was
recommended.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer. a
Wood’s
Dispatch, 1854
1. It is considered as the “Magna Carta of English Education in
India” and contained comprehensive plan for spreading education in India.
2. It states the responsibility of State for the spread of
education to the masses.
3. It recommended the hierarchy education level - At bottom,
vernacular primary school; at district, Anglo-vernacular High Schools and
affiliated college, and affiliated universities of Calcutta, Bombay and Madras
Presidency.
4. Recommended English as a medium of instruction for higher studies
and vernacular at school level. Therefore, the Dispatch clearly stated that
Indian languages as well as English should be used as media of instruction.
The Dispatch recommended that owing to the shortage of books in
Indian languages, the medium of instruction should be English. But English
should be needed for those people who have proper knowledge and taste for
English and are able to understand European knowledge through this language.
For other Indian languages should be used.
5. In Wood’s Dispatch, much emphasis was given upon women
education. The Despatch also encouraged the private enterprises to promote
women education. The schools for girls were to be included among those to which
grants-in-aid would be given
6. Concerning Muslim Education, Mr. Wood found that Muslims in
this country were educationally backward and hence they should be encouraged to
gain more education and efforts should be made in this direction.
7. The Dispatch recommended that academically and highly qualified
person should be preferred more than the others for Government services.
8. The Dispatch directed the company to follow a policy of
religious neutrality. No man’s religion was to stand in the way of securing an
appointment under the Government.
9. Wood‘s Dispatch recommended the establishment of teacher
training schools in each of the provinces. There should be training schools for
teachers of engineering, medicine and law. The qualified teachers should be
given better pay scales. The Dispatch further emphasized on the provision of
scholarships to the teachers during their training period.
10. The Dispatch recommended the establishment of universities in
the three Presidency towns of Calcutta, Bombay and Madras. The universities
were to be modelled after the London University.
11. The Dispatch admitted that mass education has been totally
neglected. Therefore, the Dispatch directed that useful and practical knowledge
should be conveyed to masses.
65. With
reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary
Committees scrutinizes and reports to the Ilouse whether the powers to make
regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws, etc. conrerred by the Constitution or
delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive
within the scope of such delegation ?
(a)
Committee on Government Assurances
(b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation
(c) Rules Committee
(d) Business Advisory Committee
Answer.b
Explanation:
Committee
on Subordinate Legislation
There
shall be a Committee for every house of parliament on Subordinate Legislation
to scrutinize and ensure whether powers to make rules, regulations, bye-laws,
schemes or other statutory instruments conferred by the Constitution or
delegated by Parliament have been properly exercised within such conferment or
delegation. The Committee shall consist of fifteen members each in Rajya Sabha
and Lok Sabha.
66.
Consider the following statements :
1. As per
the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher
in a State, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualification
laid down by the concerned State Council of Teacher Education.
2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to
pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National
Council of Teacher Education guidelines.
3. In India, more than 90% of teacher -5 education institutions are directly
under the State Governments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
Explanation:
The National Council for Teacher Education determines the eligibility
conditions of teachers.
‘Free and compulsory education’ was made a ‘Fundamental Right’
under article 21A of the constitution in December 2002 through the 86th
Amendment Act.
The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act or
Right to Education Act (RTE), is an Act of the Parliament of India enacted on 4
August 2009, which describes the modalities of the importance of free and
compulsory education for children between 6 and 14 in India under Article 21A
of the Indian Constitution.
Salient
features of RTE Act 2009
- Every child in the age group of 6-14 has the right to free and
compulsory education in a neighbourhood school, till the completion of
elementary education.
- The act prohibits donation, capitation fee, screening
test/interview of child or parents, physical punishment or mental harassment,
private tuition by teachers, and running schools without recognition.
- The Section 12(1)(c) of the RTE Act mandates unaided and
non-minority schools to keep aside 25% seats for underprivileged children of
society through a random selection process. Government will fund education of
these children.
- No child can be held back, expelled and required to pass the
board examination till the completion of elementary education.
- The Act lays down the norms and standards of Pupil Teacher
Ratios (PTRs), buildings and infrastructure, school working days, teacher
working hours. Schools that do not fulfil these standards will not be allowed
to function. Specification of the PTR ensures that there is no averaging at the
State or District or Block level, preventing urban-rural imbalance in teacher
postings.
- The Act provides appointment of appropriately trained teachers.
Norms and standards of teacher qualification and training are clearly laid down
in the Act.
- The Act prohibits deployment of teachers for non-educational
work, other than decennial census, elections to local authority, state
legislatures and parliament, and disaster relief.
- There is provision for establishment of commissions to supervise
the implementation of the act. All schools except private unaided schools are
to be managed by School management Committees with 75% of parents and guardians
as members.
- The Act specifies the duties and responsibilities of appropriate
Governments, local authority in providing free and compulsory education, and
sharing of financial and other responsibilities between the Central and State
Governments.
Source:
righttoeducation.in
67. Consider
the following pairs :
Tradition
State
1. Chapchar Kut festival — Mizoram
2. Khongjom Parba ballad — Manipur
3. Thong-To dance — Sikkim
Which of the pairs given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3
Answer.b
Explanation:
The Chapchar Kut is a spring festival of Mizoram, India. It is
estimated to have started in 1450-1700 A.D. in a village called Suaipui. It is
celebrated during March after the completion of the task i.e. jungle-clearing
(clearing of the remnants of burning). This festival is celebrated with great
fervour and gaiety.
Khongjom Parba is a style of ballad singing from Manipur using
Dholak (drum) which depicts stories of heroic battle fought by Manipuris
against the
mighty British Empire in 1891. It is one of the most popular
musical art forms of Manipur inciting the spirit of patriotism and nationalism
among the people at one time.
The art of Thang-Ta represents an ancient and remarkable tradition
of Manipur. It exhibits the extraordinary technique of combat using the Thang
(sword) and the Ta (spear). Thang-Ta symbolises the traditional martial art
techniques of the Manipuris. It was also known as Huyen Lallong which means the
art of sword and the spear.
68.
Consider the following statements
1. The
Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 replaced the Prevention of Food
Adulteration Act, 1954.
2. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is under the charge
of Director General of Health Services in the Union Ministry of Health and
Family Welfare.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1
only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer.a
Explanation:
Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is an
autonomous body established under the Ministry of Health, Family Welfare and
Government of India. The FSSAI has been established under the Food Safety and
Standards Act, 2006 which is a consolidating statute related to food safety and
regulation in India. It is responsible for protecting and promoting public
health through the regulation and supervision of food safety. The Food Safety
and Standard Act replaced 8 older acts:
1. Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954
2. Fruit Products Order, 1955
3. Meat Food Products Order, 1973
4. Vegetable Oil Products (Control) Order, 1947
5. Edible Oils Packaging (Regulation) Order 1988
6. Solvent Extracted Oil, De- Oiled Meal and Edible Flour
(Control) Order, 1967
7. Milk and Milk Products Order, 1992
69. The
term "two-state solution" is sometimes mentioned in the news in the
context of the
affairs of
(a) China
(b) Israel
(c) Iraq
(d) Yemen
Answer.b
Explanation:
The "two-state solution" is the preferred solution
adopted for the Arab-Israel conflict by the creation of an independent state of
Israel and Palestine and is the mainstream approach to resolve the conflict.
The idea is that Israelis and Palestinians want to run their countries
differently; Israelis want a Jewish state and Palestinians want a Palestinian
one. Because neither side can get what it wants in a joined state, the only
possible solution that satisfies everyone involves separating Palestinians and
Israelis.
70. With
reference to the provisions made under the National Food Security Act, 2013
consider the following statements:
1. The
families coming under the category of 'below poverty line (BPL)' only are
eligible to receive subsidised grains.
2. The eldest woman in a household, of age 18 years or above, shall be the head
of the household for the purpose of issuance of a ration card.
3. Pregnant women and lactating mothers are entitled to a take-home ration' of
1600 calories per day during pregnancy and for six months thereafter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and
2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
Answer.b
Explanation:
- Coverage and entitlement under Targeted Public Distribution
System (TPDS): Upto 75% of the rural population and 50% of the urban population
will be covered under TPDS, with uniform entitlement of 5 kg per person per
month.
- Corresponding to the all India coverage of 75% and 50% in the
rural and urban areas, State-wise coverage will be determined by the Central
Government. The then Planning Commission (now NITI Aayog) has determined the
State-wise coverage by using the NSS Household Consumption Survey data for
2011-12.
- Food grains under TPDS will be made available at subsidised
prices of Rs. 3/2/1 per kg for rice, wheat and coarse grains for a period of
three years from the date of commencement of the Act. Thereafter prices will be
as fixed by the Central Government from time to time, not exceeding MSP. It has
been decided by the Government to continue the above mentioned subsidized
prices up to June, 2018.
- Within the coverage under TPDS determined for each State, the
work of identification of eligible households is to be done by States/UTs.
- Pregnant women and lactating mothers and children in the age
group of 6 months to 14 years will be entitled to meals as per prescribed
nutritional norms under Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) and
Mid-Day Meal (MDM) schemes. Higher nutritional norms have been prescribed for
malnourished children upto 6 years of age.
- Pregnant women and lactating mothers will also be entitled to
receive maternity benefit of not less than Rs. 6,000.
- Eldest woman of the household of age 18 years or above to be the
head of the household for the purpose of issuing of ration cards.
- Grievance redressal mechanism at the District and State levels.
States will have the flexibility to use the existing machinery or set up
separate mechanism.
- Central Government will provide assistance to States in meeting
the expenditure incurred by them on transportation of foodgrains within the
State, its handling and FPS dealers’ margin as per norms to be devised for this
purpose.
- Provisions have been made for disclosure of records relating to
PDS, social audits and setting up of Vigilance Committees in order to ensure
transparency and accountability.
- Provision for food security allowance to entitled beneficiaries
in case of non-supply of entitled foodgrains or meals.
- Provision for penalty on public servant or authority, to be
imposed by the State Food Commission, in case of failure to comply with the
relief recommended by the District Grievance Redressal Officer.
71. India
enacted The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection)
Act, 1999 in order to comply with the obligations to
(a) ILO
(b) IMF
(c) UNCTAD
(d) WTO
Answer.d
Explanation:
The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and
Protection) Act, 1999, coupled with the ‘Geographical Indications of Goods
(Registration and Protection) Rules, 2002. The Act, which became operational
with effect from 15 September 2003, was drafted as part of the exercise in the
country to set in place national IPR laws as much in compliance with India’s
obligations under the Agreement on Trade Related Aspects of Intellectual
Property Rights (TRIPs) of the World Trade Organisation (WTO) so as to take
advantage of the ‘minimum’ standards of GI protection that the TRIPs sets out
for the WTO members to comply with in their respective national legislations.
72.
Consider the following statements:
1. In
India, State Governments do not have the power to auction non-coal mines.
2. Andhra Pradesh and Jharkhand do not have gold mines.
3. Rajasthan has iron ore mines.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and
2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
Answer.c
Explanation:
Statement
1 is incorrect: State governments can auction Non-coal mines.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Both Jharkhand and Andhra Pradesh have gold mines.
Statement 3 is correct: Bhilwara in Rajasthan has an iron ore mine.
73. With
reference to digital payments, consider the following statements:
1. BHIM
app allows the user to transfer money to anyone with a UPI-enabled bank
account.
2. While a chip-pin debit card has four factors of authentication, BHIM app has
only two factors of authentication.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1
only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer.a
Explanation:
Bharat
Interface for Money (BHIM) is a payment app that lets you make simple, easy and
quick transactions using Unified Payments Interface (UPI). You can make direct
bank payments to anyone on UPI using their UPI ID or scanning their QR with the
BHIM app. You can also request money through the app from a UPI ID.
74. Among
the following cities, which one lies on a longitude closest to that of Delhi?
(a)
Bengaluru
(b) Hyderabad
(c) Nagpur
(d) Pune
Answer.a
Explanation: Please
see Atlas
75.
International Labour Organization's Conventions 138 and 182 are related to
(a) Child
labour
(b) Adaptation of agricultural practices to global climate change
(c) Regulation of food prices and food security
(d) Gender parity at the workplace
Answer.a
Explanation:
International Labour Organization's Conventions 138 and 182 are
related to Child labour.
76.
Consider the following events:
1. The
first democratically elected communist party government formed in a State in
India.
2. India's then largest bank, 'Imperial Bank of India', was renamed 'State Bank
of India'.
3. Air India was nationalised and became the national carrier.
4. Goa became a part of independent India.
Which of
the following is the correct chronological sequence of the above events?
(a) 4 - 1 - 2 - 3
(b) 3 - 2 - 1 - 4
(c) 4 - 2 - 1 - 3
(d) 3 - 1 -2 -4
Answer.b
Explanation:
In 1946, Tata Airlines became a public company and was renamed Air
India.
The Imperial Bank of India (IBI) was the oldest and the largest
commercial bank of the Indian subcontinent, and was subsequently transformed
into State Bank of India in 1955.The Imperial Bank of India came into existence
on 27 January 1921 by J.M. Keynes. When the three Presidency Banks of colonial
India, were reorganised and amalgamated to form a single banking entity.
The Kerala Legislative Assembly election of 1957 was the first
assembly election in the Indian state of Kerala. The Communist Party of India
won the election with 60 seats. The election led to the formation of first
democratically elected communist government in India and second in the world
after San Marino.
The Portuguese control of its Indian colonies ended only when
India invaded Goa in 1961 and incorporated the territories into the Indian
Union.
77. Right
to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal
Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and
appropriately imply the above statement?
(a)
Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution
(b) Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV
(c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part. III
(d) Article 24 and the provisions under the 44th Amendment to the Constitution
Answer.c
Explanation:
Article
21 guarantees the Right to life and personal liberty under Part III of the
Constitution. The historic fallout of the nine-judge Bench judgment, declaring
privacy as intrinsic to life and liberty and an inherent right protected by
Part III of the Constitution, is that an ordinary man can now directly approach
the Supreme Court and the High Courts for violation of his fundamental right
under the Constitution.
By making
privacy an intrinsic part of life and liberty under Article 21, it is not just
a citizen, but anyone, whether an Indian national or not, can move the
constitutional courts of the land under Articles 32 and 226, respectively, to
get justice.
78.
Consider the following:
1. Areca
nut
2. Barley
3. Coffee
4. Finger millet
5. Groundnut
6. Sesamum
7. Turmeric
The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affair, has announced the
Minimum Support Price for which of the above?
(a) 1, 2,
3 and 7 only
(b) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
(c) 1, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7
Answer.b
MSP is a
form of agricultural market intervention undertaken by the Union Government in
order to insure agricultural producers are protected against a...
The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs announces MSP for 26 crops, CCEA does
not announce
MSP for arecanut and coffee.
79. In
which one of the following States is Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary located?
(a)
Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Manipur
(c) Meghalaya
(d) Nagaland
Answer.a
Explanation:
Pakhui
Wildlife Sanctuary (862 km2, 92°36’ – 93°09'E and 26°54 – 27°16'N) lies in the
foothills of the Eastern Himalaya in the East Kameng District of Arunachal
Pradesh. It was declared a sanctuary in 1977, and was earlier part of the
Khellong Forest Division. It has been recently declared a tiger reserve in 2002
based on a proposal in 1999.
80. With
reference to India’s satellite launch vehicles, consider the following
statements:
1. PSLVs
launch the satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs
are designed mainly to launch communication satellites.
2. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same
position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth.
3. GSLV Mk III is a four-staged launch l vehicle with the first and third
stages l using solid rocket motors; and the second and fourth stages using
liquid rocket engines.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct.?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 3 only
Answer.a
Explanation:
Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) is the third generation
launch vehicle of India. It is the first Indian launch vehicle to be equipped
with liquid stages. GSLV's primary payloads are INSAT class of communication
satellites
GSLV-Mk III is a three-stage vehicle with two solid motor
strap-ons (S200), a liquid propellant core stage (L110) and a cryogenic stage
(C25).GSLV-Mk III is capable launching 4 ton class of satellites to
Geosynchronous Transfer orbit (GTO).
81. With
reference to the governance of public sector banking in India, consider the
following statements
1.
Capital infusion into public sector banks by the Government of India has
steadily increased in the last decade.
2. To put the public sector banks in order, the merger of associate banks with
the parent State Bank of India has been affected.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer.c
Explanation:
In the FY 2017 the government of India has infused the amount of
35828 cr and government will infuse Rs 88,139 crore into 20 public sector banks
through recapitalisation bonds and budgetary support in this financial year
2018, a move aimed at strengthening these banks' lending capacity.
82.
Consider the following items:
1. Cereal
grains hulled
2. Chicken eggs cooked
3. Fish processed and canned
4. Newspapers containing advertising material
Which of the above items is/are exempted under GST (Goods and
Services Tax)?
(a) 1
only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer.d
Explanation:
List of Tax exempted Goods are;
A number
of food items have been exempted from any of the tax slabs. Fresh meat, fish,
chicken, eggs, milk, butter milk, curd, natural honey, fresh fruits and
vegetables, flour, besan, bread, all kinds of salt, jaggery and hulled cereal
grains have been kept out of the taxation system.
Bindi, sindoor, kajal, palmyra, human hair and bangles also do not attract any
tax under GST.
Drawing
or colouring books alongside stamps, judicial papers, printed books, newspapers
also fall under this category.
Other items in the exempted list include jute and handloom, Bones and horn
cores, hoof meal, horn meal, bone grist, bone meal, etc.
83.
Consider the following statements:
1. The
definition of "Critical Wildlife Habitat" is incorporated in the
Forest Rights Act, 2006.
2. For the first time in India, Baigas have been given Habitat Rights.
3. Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change officially decides
and declares Habitat Rights for Primitive and Vulnerable Tribal Groups in any
part of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer.a
Explanation:
The
Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest
Rights) Act, 2006, is a key piece of forest legislation passed in India on 18
December 2006. It has also been called the Forest Rights Act, the Tribal Rights
Act, the Tribal Bill, and the Tribal Land Act.
The Baiga are an ethnic group found in central India, primarily in the states
of Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand. The largest
number of Baigas is found in Baiga-chuk in Mandla district and Balaghat
district of Madhya Pradesh.
Baiga tribals become India’s first community to get habitat
rights. It was in November 2015 that the authorities began handing over legal
titles to this community. Authorities have granted over 9,300 hectares (ha) to
about 900 families in seven villages in the Madhya Pradesh.
84.
Consider the following:
1. Birds
2. Dust blowing
3. Rain
4. Wind blowing
Which of the
above spread plant diseases?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer.d
Explanation:
According
to the general mode of primary infection plant diseases are recognized as:-
1. Soil borne
2. Seed borne, including diseases carried with planting material.
3. Wind borne
4. Insect borne etc.
Direct transmission: - Disease transmission where the pathogen is
carried externally or internally on the seed or planting material like
cuttings, sets, tubers, bulbs etc.
Indirect transmission:- The pathogen spreading itself by way of
its persistent growth or certain structures of the pathogen carried
independently by natural agencies like wind, water, animals, insects, mites,
nematodes, birds etc. are the different methods of indirect transmissions.
85. With
reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements:
1. The
National Programme for Organic Production' (NPOP) is operated under the
guidelines and directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development.
2. The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority'
(APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP.
3. Sikkim has become India's first fully organic State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer.b
Explanation:
Ministry
of Commerce has implemented the National Programme for Organic Production
(NPOP) since 2001.
India Organic is a certification mark for organically farmed food products
manufactured in India. The certification is issued by testing centres
accredited by the Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development
Authority (APEDA).
Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic state by converting
around 75,000 hectares of agricultural land into sustainable cultivation.
Sikkim produces around 80,000 million tonnes of farm products. The total
organic production in the country is estimated to be around 1.24 million tonnes
while the total area under organic farming is 0.723 million hectares. A number
of other states in India like Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh and Kerala are now
trying to become organic.
86.
Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct?
(a ) A
bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions relating
to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.
(b) A Money Bill has provisions for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of
India or the Contingency Fund of India.
(c) A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the
Contingency Fund of India.
(d) A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of
any guarantee by the Government of India.
Answer.c
Explanation:
Money
Bill refers to a bill (draft law) introduced in the Lower Chamber of Indian
Parliament (Lok Sabha) which generally covers the issue of receipt and spending
of money, such as tax laws, laws governing borrowing and expenditure of the
Government, prevention of black money etc.
110(1)…a Bill is deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions
dealing with all or any of the following matters, namely:
(a) The imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation
of any tax;
(b) The regulation of the borrowing of money or the giving of any
guarantee by the Government of India, or the amendment of the law with respect
to any financial obligations undertaken or to be undertaken by the Government
of India;
(c) The custody of the Consolidated Fund or the Contingency Fund
of India, the payment of moneys into or the withdrawal of moneys from any such
fund;
(d) The appropriation of moneys out of the Consolidated Fund of
India;
(e) The declaring of any expenditure to be expenditure charged on
the Consolidated Fund of India or the increasing of the amount of any such
expenditure;
(f) The receipt of money on account of the
Consolidated Fund of India or the public account of India or the custody or
issue of such money or the audit of the accounts of the Union or of a State.
87. With
reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following
statements:
1. The
value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State.
2. The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha is more than the value of the
vote of MPs of the Rajya Sabha.
Which of following statements given above is/are Correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 Or 2
Answer.c
Explanation:
The presidential electoral college is made up of the following:
1.
elected members of the Rajya Sabha
2. elected members of the Lok Sabha
3. elected members of each state Vidhan Sabha
4. elected members of union territory Delhi and Puducherry)
The value of votes cast by elected members of the state
legislative assemblies and both houses of parliament are determined by the
provisions of article 55(2) of the Constitution of India.
The value of the vote of each MLA of each state is different. It
is determined by the average constituency size and 1971 census. The value of an
MLA of uttar pradesh is highest i.e.208.
The value of the vote of each MP of lok sabha and rajya sabha is
equal i.e.708. The total value of current strength of loksabha MPs is 384,444
and Rajya sabha's (233)total value is 164,964.
88. In
the Indian context, what is the implication of ratifying the 'Additional
Protocol' with the `International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)' ?
(a) The
civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards.
(b) The military nuclear installations come under the inspection of IAEA.
(c) The country will have the privilege to buy uranium from the Nuclear
Suppliers Group (NSG).
(d) The country automatically becomes a member of the NSG.
Answer.a
Explanation:
India's Additional Protocol for nuclear safeguards has been
brought into force after the country handed over the instrument of ratification
to the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA).
The protocol supports the sharing of more information between
India and the IAEA about nuclear power plants and work with nuclear fuel
materials. It covers a list of nuclear facilities that was agreed in 2008 under
then-prime minister Manmohan Singh, but its implementation stalled in the last
few years of his premiership.
Having taken power in late May, new prime minister Narendra Modi
ratified the protocol on 24 June, and India's ambassador to the IAEA, Rajiva
Misra, handed the document to IAEA director general Yukiya Amano on 25 July.
From that day the additional protocol was in force.
89.
Consider the following countries :
1.
Australia
2. Canada
3. China
4. India
5. Japan
6. USA
Which of
the above are among the 'free-trade partners' of ASEAN ?
(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(b) 3, 4, 5 and 6
(c) 1, 3, 4 and 5
(d) 2, 3, 4 and 6
Answer.c
Explanation:
About ASEAN:
Headquarters: Jakarta, Indonesia
Founded: 8 August 1967
Members: Indonesia, Thailand, Vietnam, Singapore, Malaysia,
Philippines, Myanmar (Burma), Cambodia, Laos, Brunei
FTA partners – Australia, New Zealand, India, Korea, Japan, and
China.
90. With
reference to the 'Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture (CACSA)', which
of the following statements is/are correct.''
1. GACSA
is an outcome of the Climate Summit held in Paris in 2015.
2. Membership of GACSA does not create any binding obligations.
3. India was instrumental in the creation of GACSA.
Select the correct answer using the code given
(a) 1 and
3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer.b
Explanation:
The concept of Climate-Smart Agriculture (CSA) was originally
developed by FAO and officially presented and at the Hague Conference on
Agriculture, Food Security and Climate Change in 2010,
GACSA is a voluntary platform open to governments, international and
regional organizations, institutions, civil society, farmers’ organizations and
businesses who agree with its vision and its Framework Document.
Being a
member does not create any binding obligations and members determine their
particular voluntary actions according to their needs and priorities.
India is not the member of this organisation.
91. Which
of the following is/are the aim/aims of "Digital India" Plan of the
Government of India?
1. Formation of India's own Internet companies like China did.
2. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational
corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centres within our
national geographical boundaries.
3 Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our
school, public places and major tourist
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a ) 1 and 2 only
( b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer.b
Explanation: Digital
India is a campaign launched by the Government of India to ensure the
Government services are made available to citizens electronically by improved
online infrastructure and by increasing Internet connectivity or by making the
country digitally empowered in the field of technology. It consists of three
core components, (a) development of secure and stable digital infrastructure,
(b) delivering government services digitally, and (c) universal digital
literacy.
Objectives
of the Digital India
1. Digital infrastructure: high speed internet facility, mobile
phone and bank account, access to common service centre, internet identity,
sharable private space on a public cloud and safe and secure cyberspace.
2. Governance and services on demand will be available in real
time for online and mobile platforms, seamlessly integrated across departments
and jurisdictions. All citizen documents to be made available on the cloud
platform so that physical document presentation can be minimized. Cashless
electronic transactions and Geographical Information Systems (GIS) will be
integrated with the scheme.
3. Empower citizens, especially rural citizens, by providing
digital literacy.
92.
Consider the following pairs:
Town
sometime mentioned in
news Country
1.Aleppo
–Syria
2.Kirkuk
-Yemen
3.Mosul
- Palestine
4.Mazar-i-Sharif
- Afghanistan
Which of
the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 and 4
Answer.b
Explanation: Aleppo
is a city in Syria, serving as the capital of the Aleppo Governorate, the most
populous Syrian governorate. Kirkuk is a city in Iraq, serving as the capital
of the Kirkuk Governorate, located 238 kilometres north of Baghdad. Mosul is a
major city in northern Iraq situated on the west bank of the Tigris, opposite
the ancient Assyrian city of Nineveh on the east bank. Mazar-e Sharif, city is in
Afghanistan, 35 miles south of the border with Uzbekistan. Hence, b is the
correct option.
93. In
the federation established by The Government on India Act of 1935. Residuary
Power were given to the
(a)
Federal Legislature
(b) Governor General
(c) Provincial Legislature
(d) Provincial Governors
Answer.b
Explanation:
Under 1935 Act, the Governor General was authorized to act in his discretion
and under certain other provisions; he could exercise his individual judgment.
He was vested with the final political authority in the country; and was given
widest discretionary powers and special responsibilities. These functions and
powers were defined by the Act as his special responsibilities. In Government
of India Act 1935 the discretionary powers and responsibilities of Governor
General are as follows:
1. Under Govt. Act of India 1935, he was in charge of the Reserve
Departments of Defence, Foreign Affairs, Ecclesiastical Affairs and Tribal
Areas and he appoint three councillors to assist him in his work.
2. He could appoint and dismiss the Council of Ministers and also
could preside over their meetings. They would hold office during his pleasure.
Their consultation and advice was not binding upon him.
3. He could issue two kinds of ordinances. One type of ordinance
he could issue at any time and that lasted for 6 months. The other kind of
ordinance would be issued when the legislature was not in session.
4. The Governor General was also given the power to issue what
were known as Governor General Act. But these had to be forwarded to the
Secretary of State.
5. The previous of Governor General was required for the
introduction of certain bills in the Federal Legislature and the Provincial
Legislatures: He was authorized to stop discussion on any bill at any time by
the legislature. He could withhold his assent to a bill passed by the
Legislature or send the same back for the consideration of His Majesty.
6. He was given control over 80% of the Federal budget; the
non-vote able items of the budget formed a major part of the budget.
7. The Governor General could in his discretion send any
instructions to the Governors and it was the special responsibility of the
later to carry them out.
8. Governor General could suspend the Constitution.
9. In Government of India Act 1935 Governor General was given the
authority to summon, prorogue and dissolve the Federal Assembly lie could
summon both the houses for joint sitting. He could address the Legislatures and
could send messages regarding certain bills.
94.
Consider the following statements:
1. The
Speaker of the Legislative Assembly Shall vacate his/her office if he/she
ceases to be a member of the Assembly.
2. Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate
his/her immediately.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1
only
(b) 2only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer.a
Explanation:
The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall vacate his/her office if:
1. He/she ceases to be member of the assembly.
2. He/she resigns by writing to be deputy speaker.
3. He/she is removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all
the present members of the assembly.
Such resolution can be brought only after giving 14 days advance
notice.
The Speaker does not vacate his office on the dissolution of the
Assembly. He continues holding office, until immediately before the first
meeting of the Assembly after dissolution. The Speaker and the Deputy Speaker
are paid such salaries and allowances as may be fixed by the State Legislature
by law. Their salaries are not votable as they are charged on the Consolidated
Fund of the State.
95. Which
one of the following reflects the nicest, appropriate relationship between law
and liberty?
(a) if
there are more laws, there is less liberty.
(b) If there are no laws, there is no liberty.
(c) If there is liberty, laws have to be made by the people.
(d) If laws are changed too often, liberty is in danger.
Answer. b
Explanation: The
term ‘Liberty’ or ‘freedom’ denotes a very important principle of political
philosophy. It is formally be describe as ‘absence of restrain’-Means in order
to maintain liberty of the individual, the state should not impose any
restraints on his activities in various sphere of life.
Liberty entails the responsible use of freedom under the rule of law without
depriving anyone else of their freedom. Freedom is broader in that it
represents a total lack of restraint or the unrestrained ability to fulfil
one's desires.
96.
Consider the following statements:
1. No
criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any
court during his term of office.
2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be
diminished during his term of office.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer.c
Explanation: The
Governor is the head of a state just like the President is the head of the
republic. The Governor is the nominal head of a state, while the Chief Minister
is the executive head. All executive actions of the state are taken in
the name of the Governor. He/she is also entitled to certain benefits and
allowances, which shall not be diminished during his office term of five years.
Article 361 in The Constitution of India states that:
(2) No criminal proceedings whatsoever shall be instituted or continued against
the President, or the Governor of a State, in any court during his term of
office
(3) No process for the arrest or imprisonment of the President, or the Governor
of a State, shall issue from any court during his term of office.
Hence, c is the correct option.
97. The
well-known painting "Bani Thani" belongs to the
(a) Bundi
school
(b) Jaipur school
(c) Kangra school
(d) Kishangarh school
Answer.d
Explanation: Bani
Thani is an Indian miniature painting painted by Nihâl Chand from the Marwar
school of Kishangarh. It portrays a woman who is elegant and graceful. The
painting's subject, Bani Thani, was a singer and poet in Kishangarh in the time
of King Sawant Singh (1748–1764). She has been compared to the Mona Lisa.
98. What
is "Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD)", sometimes seen in
the news?
(a) An
Israeli radar system
(b) India's indigenous anti-missile programme
(c) An American anti missile system
(d) A defence collaboration between Japan and South Korea
Answer.c
Explanation: Terminal
High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD), formerly Theater High Altitude Area
Defense, is an American anti-ballistic missile defense system designed to shoot
down short-, medium-, and intermediate-range ballistic missiles.
99. With
reference to cultural history of India, consider the following statements :
1. Most
of the Tyagaraja Kritis are devotional songs in praise of Lord Krishna.
2. Tyagaraja created several new ragas.
3. Annamacharya and Tyagaraja are contemporaries.
4. Annamacharya kirtanas are devotional songs in praise of Lord Venkateshwara.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and
3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Answer.b
Explanation: Saint
Tyagaraja, also known as Tyagayya in Telugu, was one of the greatest composers
of Carnatic music, a form of Indian classical music. He was a prolific composer
and highly influential in the development of the classical music tradition. Tyagaraja
and his contemporaries Syama Sastri and Muthuswami Dikshitar were regarded as
the Trinity of modern Carnatic music.
His songs feature himself usually either in an appeal to his deity of worship
(primarily the Avatar Rama), in musings, in narratives, or giving a message to
the public. He has also composed krithis in praise of Krishna, Shiva, Shakti,
Ganesha, Muruga, Saraswati and Hanuman.
Annamacharya was a 15th-century Hindu saint and is the earliest known Indian
musician to compose songs called sankirtanas in praise of the god Venkateswara,
a form of Vishnu.
100.
Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the "Rule of
Law" ?
1.
Limitation of powers
2. Equality before law
3. People's responsibility to the Government
4. Liberty and civil rights
Select
the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer.c
Explanation: The
concept of rule of law is a very dynamic concept, capable of interpretations to
enable the successful working of a democracy. It is the restriction on the
arbitrary exercise of power by subordinating it to well-defined and established
laws.
Features of the Modern Meaning of Rule of Law
1. Certainty of the law
2. Supremacy of the law
3. Equality before the law
4. Right to personal freedom
5. Laws must not take retrospective effect
6. Independent judiciary
7. Protection of human rights
Professor Sunny Kapoor is one of my favourite teacher. He teaches boring and difficult subjects very nicely.